Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport




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bio4050/4161/u117 human anatomy & physiology 1

exam 1 sampler questions


Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Introduction and terminology

1. In anatomic position, the head is __________ to neck

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. superior

d. inferior

e. cranial

2. Histology could be defined as the study of

a. cells

b. cell chemistry

c. tissues

d. gross structure of the body

3. A structure composed of two or more tissues is

a. a compound tissue

b. an organ system

c. an organ

d. an ontogenetic homologue

4. The biceps brachii m is an organ of the

a. cardiovascular system

b. digestive system

c. urinary system

d. musculoskeletal system

e. endocrine system

5. The heart belongs to the

a. cardiovascular system

b. digestive system

c. urinary system

d. musculoskeletal system

e. endocrine system

6. Digit III on the hand is

a. proximal

b. distal

c. medial

d. lateral

e. median

7. A kidney belongs to the

a. cardiovascular system

b. digestive system

c. urinary system

d. musculoskeletal system

e. endocrine system

8. The renal a is part of the

a. cardiovascular system

b. digestive system

c. urinary system

d. musculoskeletal system

e. endocrine system

9. The ovary, at least parts of it, is an organ of the

a. cardiovascular system

b. digestive system

c. urinary system

d. musculoskeletal system

e. endocrine system

10. The stomach is a member of the

a. cardiovascular system

b. digestive system

c. urinary system

d. musculoskeletal system

e. endocrine system

11. The palm of hand in anatomic position is

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. superior

d. inferior

e. cranial

12. Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains

a. the lowest possible energy use

b. a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

c. a static state with no deviation from preset points

d. a dynamic state with no bounds

13. The lungs are located in the following cavities

a. ventral, thoracic, pleural

b. ventral, thoracic, mediastinal

c. dorsal, abdominal, pleural

d. ventral, thoracic, pericardial

14. Carpometacarpal joint III lies __________ to metacarpophalangeal joint III.

a. proximal

b. distal

c. medial

d. lateral

e. median

15. Place the following is correct order, from simplest to most complex: (1) molecules, (2) atoms, (3) tissues, (4) cells, (5) organs

a. 1-2-3-4-5

b. 2-1-4-3-5

c. 2-1-3-4-5

d. 1-2-4-3-5

16. The popliteal fossa [the space behind the knee] lies __________ to patella

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. superior

d. inferior

e. cranial

17. Subdivisions of anatomy include

a. gross, microscopic, visual, macroscopic

b. gross, regional, dissection, surface

c. regional, surface, visual, microscopic

d. gross, surface, regional, microscopic

18. The position of the arch of the aorta just after it leaves the heart relative to the bifurcation of the aorta in front of vertebra L4 is

a. proximal

b. distal

c. medial

d. lateral

e. median

19. The pollex is the

a. great toe

b. calf

c. fingers

d. thumb

20. The relationship of pedal digit II to pedal digit III is

a. proximal

b. distal

c. medial

d. lateral

e. median

21. Anatomic position is

a. rarely used because people don’t generally assume that position

b. a standard reference for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body

c. only possible if the body is supine

d. the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a cadaver

22. A horizontal section through the body is called

a. frontal

b. sagittal

c. transverse

d. coronal

23. The sole of foot in anatomic position is

a. anterior

b. posterior

c. superior

d. inferior

e. cranial

The following questions are True/False.

101. The ovaries are part of both the endocrine and reproductive systems.

102. Positive feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.

103. A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function.

104. The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.

105. Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age.



Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Basic chemistry

201. The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60-80% of total body weight, is

a. glucose

b. oxygen

c. water

d. DNA

202. A phospholipid is usually

a. partially hydrophilic and partially hydrophobic

b. entirely hydrophilic

c. entirely hydrophobic

d. neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic

203. Glucose is a

a. polymer

b. polysaccharide

c. disaccharide

d. monosaccharide

204. The DNA molecule has how many complementary strands?

a. one

b. two

c. three

205. Bases are

a. proton acceptors

b. catalysts

c. hydrogen ions

d. proton donors

206. Adding an acid to a solution would

a. increase the pH

b. have no effect on the pH

c. decrease the pH

d. release CO2

207. Which of these is polar?

a. nitrogen gas

b. a hydrogen ion

c. cholesterol

d. water

208. Eicosanoids are

a. carbohydrates

b. lipids

c. proteins

d. hormones

209. The energy for cellular synthetic processes comes from catabolism (chemical breakdown) of

a. carbon dioxide

b. oxygen

c. ATP

d. RNA

210. The genetic information is coded in DNA by

a. the regular alterations of sugar and phosphate molecules

b. the nucleotide sequence

c. the three-dimensional structure of the double helix

d. the structure of the histones

211. The single most abundant protein in the body is

a. fibrinogen

b. hemoglobin

c. collagen

d. myosin

212. A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is associated with

a. the release of energy

b. the consumption of energy

c. synthetic processes

d. polymerization

213. Which of the following is the major cation outside the cell?

a. potassium

b. chloride

c. sodium

d. calcium

214. A chain of 67 amino acids would be called a

a. peptide

b. nucleotide

c. protein

d. glycosaminoglycan

215. A long chain of simple sugars would be called a

a. monosaccharide

b. disaccharide

c. deoxyribonucleic acid

d. polysaccharide

216. The coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix is referred to as the __________ structure.

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. quaternary

217. Select the correct statement about isotopes:

a. Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic weights.

b. All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons.

c. All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.

d. Isotopes are rare and only occur in the transuranic elements.

218. The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are

a. C, O, P, Ca

b. C, O, H, N

c. N, H, Ca, Na

d. Na, K, H, O

219. Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 7

d. 10

220. The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the “factory” site for protein formation is

a. rRNA

b. mRNA

c. tRNA

d. sRNA

221. Which of the following is necessary for the proper conduction of nervous impulses?

a. iron

b. iodine

c. phosphorus

d. sodium

222. In general, the category of lipids that we refer to as oils have

a. high water content

b. long fatty acid chains

c. a high proportion of saturated bonds

d. a high proportion of unsaturated bonds

223. Which of the following is not true of proteins?

a. They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.

b. Some types are called enzymes.

c. Some types appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.

d. Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape.

224. Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of

a. sucrose

b. triglycerides

c. glycogen

d. cholesterol

225. The speed or rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by all of the following except

a. the concentration of the reactants

b. the temperature

c. the presence of catalysts or enzymes

d. the presence or absence of carbon

226. Salts are always

a. ionic compounds

b. single covalent compounds

c. double covalent compounds

d. hydrogen bonded

227. A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being

a. acidic

b. basic

c. neutral

d. slightly acidic

The following questions are True/False.

301. A synthesis reaction always involves the formation of bonds.

302. Chemical properties are determined primarily by neutrons.

303. Charged particles are called ions.

304. Oxygen is present in proteins, but not carbohydrates.

305. The suffix –ase usually indicates an enzyme.

306. A base may be described as a proton donor.

307. Hydrogen bonds are strong bonds.

308. The number of electrons in an atom is always equal to the number of neutrons.

309. The substances making up a mixture can be separated by physical means.



Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Cells and membrane transport systems

401. Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together into a cell “community” include all but

a. gap junctions

b. tight junctions

c. desmosomes

d. peroxisomes

402. Cellular organelles that produce ATP are

a. cilia

b. smooth endoplasmic reticula

c. ribosomes

d. mitochondria

403. The purpose of gap junctions is to

a. anchor cells to the basement membrane

b. allow cells to move freely

c. allow substances to pass from one cell to another

d. fuse cells together

404. A red blood cell placed in pure water would

a. shrink

b. swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is attained

c. neither shrink nor swell

d. swell and lyse

405. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plasma membrane?

a. solid

b. selectively permeable

c. allows diffusion

406. If a cell is in a solution that would cause the cell to swell, the concentration of the solution is __________ the concentration inside the cell.

a. greater than

b. less than

c. equal to

407. Which of the following would require facilitated diffusion to get into the cell?

a. oxygen

b. small lipid-soluble molecules

c. large lipid-soluble molecules

d. glucose

408. Which of these is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

a. circulating antibody

b. molecular transport through the membrane

c. stabilization of the lipid bilayer

d. oxygen transport

409. Calcium ions are stored in the cell

a. in the smooth ER

b. in the rough ER

c. in both smooth and rough ER

d. free in the cytoplasm

410. The plasma membrane is

a. a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell

b. a double layer of protein molecules enclosing the cytosol

c. the phospholipid bilayer with associated proteins that surrounds the cell

d. a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae

411. Microtubules do not

a. affect motility

b. affect the arrangement of the organelles

c. participate in cell division

d. help form the cell’s endomembrane system

412. Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

a. acts as a circulating antibody

b. transports molecules through the membrane

c. forms a lipid bilayer

d. reversibly binds and transports oxygen

413. Mitosis

a. is gametogenesis.

b. results in nuclear division.

c. creates diversity in genetic potential.

d. occurs only in neuronal tissue.

414. Which of these are inclusions, not organelles?

a. melanin granules

b. lysosomes

c. microtubules

d. cilia

415. If a nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for mRNA synthesis is ACGTT, then the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA would be

a. TGCAA

b. ACGTT

c. UGCAA

d. GUACC

The following questions are True/False.

501. Net diffusion is always from areas of greater to lesser concentration (or charge).

502. Facilitated diffusion always requires a carrier molecule.

503. Mitochondria contain their own DNA.

504. The genetic information is coded in DNA by the regular alternation of sugar and phosphate molecules.

505. Microtubules are hollow tubes made of subunits of the protein tubulin.

506. The function of gap junctions is to regulate the passage of chemical substances between adjacent cells.

507. In their resting state, all body cells have a resting membrane potential ranging from –50 to about +50 millivolts.

508. A process by which large particles may be taken into the cell for protection of the body or for disposing of effete or dead cells is called phagocytosis.

509. A principle of cell theory is that continuity of life has a cellular basis.

510. In osmosis, movement of water occurs toward the solution with the lower solute concentration.



Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Histology

601. Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone?

a. living cells

b. lacunae

c. blood vessels

d. organic fibers

602. A large round cell with a small peripheral nucleus describes a(n)

a. neuron

b. fibroblast

c. adipocyte

d. cuboidal epithelial cell

603. Pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium

a. lines the respiratory tract

b. aids in digestion

c. has numerous goblet cells

d. is not a valid classification of epithelial tissue

604. The shape of the external ear is maintained by

a. adipose tissue

b. elastic cartilage

c. hyaline cartilage

d. small spicules of osseous tissue

605. What are glycosaminoglycans?

a. positively charged proteins

b. negatively charged proteins

c. positively charged polysaccharides

d. negatively charged polysaccharides

606. The tissue type that arises from all three germ layers is

a. epithelial tissue

b. connective tissue

c. nervous tissue

d. muscle tissue

607. The three main components of connective tissue are

a. ground substance, fibers, and cells

b. alveoli, fibrous capsules, and secretory cells

c. collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers

d. fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts

608. Which is true concerning muscle tissue?

a. highly cellular and well vascularized

b. cuboidal cell shape enhances function

c. contains contractile units composed of collagen

d. is a single-celled tissue

609. Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n)

a. organ

b. tissue

c. organism

d. organ system

610. The fiber type that gives connective tissue great strength is the

a. elastic fiber

b. collagen fiber

c. reticular fiber

d. muscle fiber

611. The tissue matrix is

a. cells and fibers

b. fibers and ground substance

c. ground substance and cells

d. an Andy and Larry Wachowski film

612. Epithelial tissue

a. is highly vascularized

b. has a basement membrane

c. is usually acellular

d. contains main different types of neurons

613. A single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of a serous membrane is

a. transitional

b. simple columnar

c. simple squamous

d. simple cuboidal

614. A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as

a. simple cuboidal

b. simple squamous

c. transitional

d. stratified squamous

615. Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands.

a. Compound glands are so called because they are constructed from more than one cell type.

b. The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.

c. Exocrine glands lack ducts.

d. Merocrine glands release their secretion by pinching off part of the cell.

The following questions are True/False.

701. Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.

702. Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers.

703. Blood is considered a type of connective tissue.

704. Kupffer cells and microglial cells are examples of macrophages.

705. Smooth muscle cells possess nuclei but lack striations.



Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Integumentary system

801. Which of these are immune system cells found in the epidermis?

a. keratinocytes

b. melanocytes

c. Langerhans cells

d. Merkel’s disks

802. Which of these skin elements is not made from epithelial components?

a. dermis

b. hair shaft

c. sweat gland

803. The fibrous protein in the skin that gives it protective properties is

a. collagen

b. keratin

c. carotene

d. melanin

804. Acne is a disorder associated with

a. sweat glands

b. sebaceous glands

c. Meibomian glands

d. ceruminous glands

805. The dermis

a. is an avascular connective tissue layer

b. has two distinct layers

c. lacks glands and sensory corpuscles

d. is the location of melanocytes

806. The __________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.

a. eccrine

b. apocrine

c. ceruminous

d. mammary

807. Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of light touch?

a. Meissner’s corpuscles

b. Pacinian corpuscles

c. free nerve endings

d. Krause’s end bulbs

808. The integumentary system is protected by our immune system through the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this immune function?

a. cells of the stratum spinosum

b. macrophages called Langerhans cells

c. keratinocytes, because of their versatility

d. Merkel cells

809. What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

a. infection

b. dehydration

c. intractable pain

d. immunosuppression

810. Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because

a. they grow at a much slower rate

b. the eyebrow hair follicles are only active for a few months of the year

c. the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is only one-tenth that of the head hair follicle

d. hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length

811. The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is

a. primarily uric acid

b. 99% water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin C

c. fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

d. mostly metabolic wastes

812. The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?

a. goblet cells, Paneth cells, and parietal cells

b. monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes

c. fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

d. osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and eosinophils

813. Ketatinocytes are the most important of the epidermal cells because

a. they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin its protective properties

b. they are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function

c. they can reproduce rapidly

d. they are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays

814. Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage because the role of the keratinocytes is to

a. provide the melanocyte with a protective shield against abrasion

b. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a pigment that protects DNA from UV radiation

c. maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules

d. maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

815. Melanocytes

a. are spidery-shaped cells in contact with cells in the stratum basale

b. are involved in immune functioning

c. are involved with the nervous system

d. work their way up to the surface just like the keratinocytes

The following questions are True/False.

901. The superficial fascia, or panniculus adiposus, is the intermediate layer of the skin.

902. The dermis comprises the major portion of the skin.

903. Regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes.

904. The hyponychium is commonly called the cuticle.

905. The pigment we observe in our hair is produced by the same cells that produce pigment in our skin.

906. The nail is a modification of the skin and is homologous with the hooves of horses, cattle, and deer.

907. Hair growth and density are influenced by hormones and nutrition.


Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Bone and cartilage

1001. Diploë are found in

a. upper extremity bones

b. lower extremity bones

c. skull bones

d. finger/toe bones

1002. A replacement of a cartilaginous “model” of a bone is seen in

a. periosteal ossification

b. articular ossification

c. intramembranous ossification

d. endochondral ossification

1003. The cartilaginous plates between the diaphyses and epiphyses are the

a. nuchal lines

b. epiphyseal growth plates

c. periostea

d. medullary spaces

1004. The cells that are necessary for a bone to grow in thickness come primarily from the

a. periosteum

b. epiphyseal plate

c. articular cartilage

d. endosteum

1005. Spongy bone contains

a. haversian systems

b. trabeculae

c. osteons

d. concentric lamellae

1006. The cell responsible for resorbing bony matrix is the

a. osteocyte

b. osteoblast

c. osteoclast

d. chondroblast

1007. The organic component of bone matrix is

a. hydroxyapatite

b. glycosaminoglycans

c. osteoid

d. parathormone

1008. Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of

a. fat

b. hematopoietic cells

c. elastic tissue

d. Sharpey’s fibers

1009. The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the

a. osteocyte

b. osteoblast

c. osteoclast

d. mesenchymal cell

1010. What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

a. elastic connective tissue

b. dense fibrous connective tissue

c. fibrocartilage

d. hyaline cartilage

1011. The structure of bone suits the function. Which of the following bone types is adapted to withstand stress?

a. spongy bone

b. sesamoid bone

c. compact bone

d. woven bone

1012. A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

a. epiphysis

b. metaphysis

c. diaphysis

d. articular cartilage

1013. Vertebrae are considered __________ bones.

a. long

b. flat

c. short

d. irregular

1014. Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?

a. Growth occurs in the lining of a long bone.

b. Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.

c. Unspecialized cells from the mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which then divided and form cartilage.

d. Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

1015. The process of bones increasing in width is known as

a. closure of the epiphyseal plates

b. long bones attaining adult proportions

c. appositional growth

d. interstitial growth

The following questions are True/False.

1101. Cartilage doesn’t heal well because the matrix has no direct blood supply.

1102. Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells; in the adult, this occurs within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.

1103. Compact bone is replaced faster than spongy bone.

1104. Osteoid is the organic part of the matrix of bone.

1105. All bones formed by intramembranous ossification are irregular bones.


Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


The skeletal system

1201. The relationship of the radius to the ulna in anatomic position is

a. proximal

b. distal

c. medial

d. lateral

1202. Which of these is found on the femur?

a. anterior crest

b. malleolus

c. trochanter

d. apex

1203. The most inferior part of the sternum is the

a. xiphoid process

b. body

c. manubrium

d. ala

1204. Which of these facial bones contains paranasal sinuses?

a. zygomatic

b. inferior nasal concha

c. vomer

d. maxilla

1205. Which of these facial bones is unpaired?

a. palatine

b. lacrimal

c. vomer

d. maxilla

1206. The axial skeleton contains the

a. skull, vertebral column, and pelvis

b. arms, legs, hands, and feet

c. skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

d. pectoral and pelvic girdles

1207. Which of these two bones occur in the antebrachium?

a. tibia and fibula

b. femur and patella

c. radius and ulna

d. scapula and clavicle

1208. The middle nasal concha is a part of which bone?

a. maxilla

b. zygomatic

c. nasal

d. ethmoid

1209. Which of the following is the abnormal curve seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of pregnancy?

a. kyphosis

b. spina bifida

c. scoliosis

d. lordosis

1210. The bone in direct contact with the first metatarsal is the

a. medial cuneiform

b. lateral cuneiform

c. cuboid

d. calcaneus

1211. Only the __________ does not have a body.

a. last lumbar vertebra

b. axis

c. atlas

d. seventh cervical vertebra

1212. The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called

a. areolas

b. foramina

c. sutures

d. fontanels

1213. The interparietal suture is also called the __________ suture.

a. coronal

b. sagittal

c. lambdoidal

d. squamosal

1214. Choose the statement that is most correct about the orbit.

a. The orbit is formed of both facial and cranial bones.

b. The orbit contains only facial bones.

c. The orbit contains only cranial bones.

d. The orbit is made entirely of cartilage.

1215. The carpal bone articulating with metacarpal III is the

a. trapezoid

b. hamate

c. capitate

d. scaphoid

The following questions are True/False.

1301. Your cheek is formed primarily by the zygomatic bone.

1302. The foramen magnum is in the occipital bone.

1303. Ribs 11 and 12 are true ribs because that have not anterior attachments.

1304. The tarsus contains seven bones.

1305. Costal cartilages join ribs to the sternum.

1306. The thoracic and sacral curvatures of the vertebral column are secondary curvatures.

1307. The vomer forms part of the nasal septum.

1308. The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis.

1309. The hyoid bone is the only bone in the adult human that does not articulate with another bone.

1310. If you have broken a bone in your left index finger (digit II), you have broken a phalanx.


Students studying for Bio U117 Exam 1 should only review the sections «Introduction and terminology», «Basic chemistry», «Cells and membrane transport systems», «Histology», and «Integumentary system».


Arthrology

1401. The xiphisternal j in an 85-year old male is a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1402. The interpubic j is a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1403. carpometacarpal j I

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1404. The distal tibiofibular j is a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1405. Rib 1 costal cartilage forms a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1406. The sagittal suture is a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1407. Intervertebral disk L4–L5 is a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1408. A gomphosis joint is called a

a. synostosis

b. syndesmosis

c. synchondrosis proper

d. symphysis

e. synovial

1409. The humeroulnar j [elbow] performs

a. flexion/extension (including dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)

b. abduction/adduction

c. rotation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

1410. The interphalangeal jj permit

a. flexion/extension (including dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)

b. abduction/adduction

c. rotation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

1411. The talocrural j [“ankle”] allows

a. flexion/extension (including dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)

b. abduction/adduction

c. rotation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

1412. The glenohumeral j [shoulder] is designed for

a. flexion/extension (including dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)

b. abduction/adduction

c. rotation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

1413. Metacarpophalangeal j IV in the hand permits

a. flexion/extension (including dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)

b. abduction/adduction

c. rotation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

1414. Carpometacarpal j I allows

a. flexion/extension (including dorsiflexion/plantarflexion)

b. abduction/adduction

c. rotation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

1415. Menisci are

a. cavities lined with cartilage

b. small sacs containing synovial fluid

c. semilunar-shaped pads of fibrocartilage

d. tendon sheaths

The following questions are True/False.

1501. Although composed of fibrocartilage, a symphysis is not considered a fibrous joint.

1502. Bursae are sacs of synovial membrane creating absolute discontinuities between two structures.

1503. Hinge joints permit movement in only one plane.

1504. Movement at the hip joint does not have as wide a range of motion as at the shoulder joint.

1505. A pivot joint will exhibit gliding movement,

1506. Cruciate ligaments are important ligaments that stabilize ball-and-socket joints.

1507. Synarthrotic joint do not exhibit movement.

1508. A gomphosis is considered a cartilaginous joint.

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